The last issue contained an article, "The Past-trib Blasphemy," on the false
doctrine of Preterism. This article, written by the same author,
goes into much greater detail in exposing Preterism as a False Doctrine.

Let’s start by saying no serious student of history will deny that the 70 AD destruction of Jerusalem was not an important event. But, was it the all-inclusive theme of prophecy that the past-tribs make out of it? Was it the all-inclusive subject of Jesus’ words in Matt. 24? Was it the subject of 99% of the book of Revelation?

We say no, we believe the events leading up to and including the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70, like much prophetic imagery in the Bible, were precursors of things to come. In other words, the fall of Jerusalem in AD 70, the capital of antichrist Judaism at that time, and the events that led up to it, were small scale events to be repeated on a much larger scale later. With world-wide implications for the REAL end of this age.

Why should we think it so difficult for Jesus, God manifest in the flesh, in Matt. 24, to deal with things that applied to people of that time, but, yet, to those who live now – at the same time? It is a fact that the prophets often used lesser events to project greater fulfillment. The evidence is overwhelming that the scope of Matt. 24 and Revelation is far more than just a localized war at Jerusalem in AD 70 between the Jews and the Romans.

By forcing all second coming texts into an AD 70 straitjacket, the past-tribs have conjured up a narrow theory in the extreme. Their straitjacket can’t hold Matt. 24:5 -7 (false Christs, wars and rumors of wars, famines, pestilences, and earthquakes). Just in the last 50 years over a thousand have claimed to be Christ, the 20^th century has had the bloodiest wars of all time, 50 million died in WW2 alone, and, then, there’s the ever present threat of pestilence (biological warfare), and nuclear annihilation hanging over our heads. Famines? Taking only one example of recent times, in the wake of Communism 10 million starved to death. Need we mention the tremendous push for one world government? And the high-tech ability to control everyone on the face of the earth (see Rev. 13: 16, 17)? Knowledge and travel has increased 100 fold in these last days, and since AD 70 (see Dan. 12:4).

Revelation expands on wars, famines, pestilences, and earthquakes, in great detail. It repeatedly uses universal terms such as "all kindreds, tongues, and nations." The various plagues and judgments in the seals, trumpets, and vials are against the "EARTH." Obviously, a wider meaning than localized destruction in the Jerusalem area in AD 70. The second coming of Jesus in Rev. 19 is to do battle at Armageddon with "the kings of the earth and of the WHOLE WORLD," (Rev. 16:14), the "nations," (Rev. 19:15).

Part of those who are drawn to the battle of Armageddon, Revelation chapter nine says, are a 200 million man army – the "kings of the East" from beyond the river Euphrates. There were no such "kings of the East," from beyond Euphrates, with a 200 million man army, who fought against Jerusalem in 70 AD! These things illustrate the universal nature of the end time battle of Armageddon.

Armageddon, according to the Past-tribs, is supposed to be the fall of Jerusalem in AD 70. The past-tribs say the beast was the Roman emperor Nero. But Nero was slain at least two years before Jerusalem was destroyed — Jerusalem was destroyed under the Roman emperor Vespasian, not Nero. Furthermore, neither Vespasian, nor his general, Titus, were killed at Jerusalem with their bodies "cast alive into a lake of fire burning with brimstone" (Rev. 19:20).

The beast and his armies are supposed to be Rome coming against Jerusalem in 70 AD, this can hardly be, Titus and the Roman armies were the victors in 70 AD! Revelation says "the beast, and the kings of the earth, and their armies, gathered together to make war against him that sat on the horse, and against his armies" (Rev. 19:19), are the losers, not the victors.

These things ought to convince anybody that wars, especially Armageddon, that Jesus predicted in Matt. 24:7 are of a larger scale than the localized war in AD 70. But what about the "earthquakes" in Matt. 24:7? The Past-tribs tell us the day of the Lord took place at Jerusalem in AD 70.

Here are descriptions of the earthquake taking place on that day: "And, lo, there was a great earthquake… EVERY mountain and island were moved out of their places," Rev. 6:12,14. "And there was a great earthquake, such as was not since men were on the earth, so mighty an earthquake, and so great. And the great city was divided into three parts, and the cities of the nations fell…And EVERY island fled away, and the mountains were not found. And there fell upon men a great hail out of heaven, every stone about the weight of a talent," Rev. 16:18-21. What earthquake split Jerusalem (Babylon) into three parts in AD 70? Accompanied by hailstones weighing nearly 100 pounds squashing the heads of both Jews and Romans? (We doubt even the Roman army helmets would have helped). The language here obviously is intended for us to understand an earthquake of world-wide magnitude (every mountain and island). No such things as these happened at Jerusalem in AD 70!

In the same vein, we would expect the famines and pestilences in Matt. 24:7 to be of a large scale also. They are, see Rev. 6:5-8, 9:5,6 and 16:2,10,11. No such pestilences as described in these verses happened prior to AD 70.

Even as we speak, worldwide terrorist attacks of anthrax with threats of even more horrific pestilences are very real examples of the universal scope of the end.

Jesus said of the day of the Lord, "Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken," Matt. 24:29. Concerning what effect these things will have upon the inhabitants of the earth Luke 21:26 says, "Men’s heart’s failing them for fear, and for looking after the things coming upon the earth: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken."

Revelation describes in graphic terms the same fear upon the inhabitants of the earth that Luke 21:26 describes, "And, lo, there was a great earthquake; and the sun became black as sackcloth of hair, and the moon became as blood; and the stars of heaven fell unto the earth, even as a fig tree casteth her untimely figs, when she is shaken of a mighty wind. And the heaven departed as a scroll when it is rolled together; and every mountain and island were moved out of their places. And the kings of the earth, and the great men, and the great men, and the rich men, and the chief captains, and the mighty men, and every bondman, and every free man, hid themselves in the dens and the rocks of the mountains; and said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth on the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb: For the great day of his wrath is come; and who shall be able to stand?" Rev. 6:12-17.

We have already commented on the great earthquake, no such thing happened in AD 70. Neither did these tremendous cosmic calamities! They comprise the same event, the day of the Lord. People were not running in fear to the rocks and mountains, and having heart attacks because of seeing these things in AD 70 (Luke 21:26). But, yet, the Past-tribs are going to tell us with a straight face that all THIS happened in AD 70! The great earthquake did not – neither the cosmic calamities in conjunction with it.

So how do the Past-tribs get around all this? Or, presume to get around all this? No problem, they say it is figurative - along with the second coming, the first resurrection, the millennial, and the entire book of Revelation. They insist that these celestial events did not occur actually in AD 70, but are metaphors, poetic language. Larry Smith, a ringleader of the Past-tribbers, even makes the great trumpet that gathers the elect in Matt. 24:31 to be figurative, claiming it is the preaching of the word.

Consider the great detail given in prophetic scripture, Rev. 8:7-12, 16:8,9, for instance, which describes, in detail, cosmic calamities in the heavens and their effect upon the inhabitants of the earth. Is all that "poetic language?" They have got their hands full straining to make every detail in prophetic scripture figurative.

Past-tribs apply Matt. 24:37-39, the great flood in Noah’s day, and Luke 17:29, the incineration of Sodom and Gomorrah by fire and brimstone from heaven, to the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70 with it’s cosmic calamities. As we have noted, they make the cosmic calamities figurative. But, if you equate the great flood and the Sodom and Gomorrah holocaust as actual events, to the AD 70 cosmic calamities, why wouldn’t the AD 70 cosmic calamities also be actual events? Since the great flood and the Sodom and Gomorrah holocaust were actual, likewise, so should AD 70 with it’s cosmic calamities. Truth is, when the real cosmic calamities get here they will be as real as the great flood and the Sodom and Gomorrah holocaust were!

The coming of the Lord is the great central event of the day of the Lord. The past-tribs apply it to AD 70 also. They claim the coming of the Lord in Matt. 24, in Revelation, and the coming of the Lord references scattered throughout the epistles were fulfilled in AD 70. They refer to it as a "cloud coming," a coming in judgment. Scripture on the coming of the Lord is treated as poetic language, Jesus did not physically appear, he came invisibly in the great siege of Jerusalem in AD 70, his coming, and all things associated with it, the seals, trumpets, vials, Armageddon, the great earthquake, and cosmic calamities in the sun, moon, and stars are treated as metaphor. In other words, they spiritualize the coming of the Lord. And they muster a vast amount of scripture to supposedly prove it. They cite Mark 14:62 as evidence that Caiaphas, the high priest, must see Jesus coming in the clouds of heaven within his lifetime, in 70 AD.

The second coming is indeed a "cloud" coming. The first mention of it is in Daniel Chapter 7 where the Ancient of days comes with the clouds of heaven at Armageddon, when "the beast was slain, and his body destroyed, and given to the burning flame" (v. 11). Compare this with Armageddon in Rev. 19:20 when the beast is "cast alive into a lake of fire burning with brimstone." Please refer to the section titled "The Universal Scope of the End," as to how this could not be referring to AD 70.

"Clouds" is a key word proving that there is ONE second coming of Jesus Christ. When you string together these passages: Dan.7, Luke 21:27, Mark 14:62 (the verse Past-tribs claim as "proof"), Acts 1:9-11, 1 Thes. 4:16, Rev. 1:7, & Rev. 14:14-16, the connecting thoughts of coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory (as Jesus told Caiaphas "standing at the right hand of power"), judgment, harvest and rapture come together in one great event, and in a post-trib setting, at the close of the church age.

One of the passages in the string, Acts 1:9-11, proves conclusively that his coming in the clouds IS NOT FIGURATIVE, in this passage, "this same Jesus, which is taken from you into heaven, SHALL SO COME IN LIKE MANNER AS YOU HAVE SEEN HIM GO INTO HEAVEN."

He left physically from the mount of Olives when "a cloud received him out of their sight," he will return in the clouds physically to the mount of Olives from whence he left. Zech. 14:4 says "And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east."

Now, the past-trib "proof" (Mark 14:62) for a figurative second coming of Jesus Christ in the clouds in Caiaphas’ lifetime is impossible. Acts 1:9-11 precludes any possibility of it being a metaphor. Jesus did NOT come physically to the Mount of Olives in AD 70. These "cloud coming" verses, Dan. 7, Luke 21:27, Mark 14:62, Acts 1:9-11, 1 Thess. 4:16, Rev. 1:7, and Rev. 14:14-16 all speak with one voice about one coming at the end of the church age – and the Past-trib "proof" text, Mark 14:62, is right in the middle of the string. Caiaphas is in hell, Jesus’ coming is such a stupendous event that even the wicked dead in hell will see it. When Jesus said to Caiaphas "I AM: and ye shall see the Son of Man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven," he was describing an event that everyone, including Caiaphas, will ultimately see.

The past-tribs cite Rev. 1:1 "things which must shortly come to pass," and 22:20 "Surely I come quickly," as evidence for a 70 AD second coming. But, when we look at passages like Matt. 25:14, 19 "For the kingdom of heaven is as a man traveling into a far country, who called unto his servants…After A LONG TIME the Lord of those servants cometh, and reckoneth with them," and the Matt.13 parable of the wheat and tares (a long time is implied between planting and harvest), it is obvious what is "shortly and "quickly" to the Lord is not what the past-tribs think it is.

In Larry Smith’s literature he says not only Matt. 24, but the epistles also, point to the fall of Jerusalem in AD 70. He interprets such texts as James 5:7-9, the coming of the Lord, the judge standing "before the door," as the overthrow of Jerusalem in AD 70. He also cites various passages from 1 and 2 Thess. as fulfilled in AD 70.

The epistles point to AD 70 as the second coming they claim, but, yet, Smith says a rapture yet awaits us (at the end of the millennial). Where are they going to find scripture for this other rapture? They already claim Thessalonians and Corinthians for their AD 70 second coming, what is left for them to get this alleged rapture at the end of the millennial from? There is nothing in Rev. 20 at the end of the millennial that says anything about a coming of the Lord or rapture. And they can’t jump in and claim such texts as the rapture passage, 1 Thess. 4:15,16, and the last trump passage, 1 Cor. 15:50-52, as applying to a rapture and a last trump at the end of the millennial – while at the same time claiming Thessalonians and Corinthians for AD 70 fulfillment. Paul made no such differentiation between a "cloud coming" (AD 70) and a "rapture" (at the end of the millennial)! The "rapture" and the "cloud coming" were one event: "the dead in Christ shall rise first: Then, we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord," 1 Thes. 4:16, 17.

If the past-trib’s claims were true we would have scripture for their additional rapture at the end of the millennial somewhere in the epistles. Surely, since the epistles are written to the church, God would have seen to it that we have it explained to us about such a coming and rapture. Here’s the dilemma Smith and the past-tribs are facing, in putting all eggs in one AD 70 basket they have no scripture left for a future rapture.

Ladies and gentlemen, let us state an important key loud and clear by which one can readily identify all false prophetic doctrines - there is ONLY ONE SECOND COMING OF JESUS CHRIST! There is no secret (pretrib), or figurative (past-trib) coming, Jesus will not return without everyone on earth knowing it! "Behold he cometh with clouds; and EVERY EYE SHALL SEE HIM," Rev. 1:7. The past-tribs make the same basic error the dispensationalists make. The dispys have two comings, one before the tribulation, one after it; the past-tribs have two comings, one in AD 70, one at the end of the millennial. Post-trib, Premillennial eschatology is the one coming doctrine, it stands absolutely unique in this regard. Same as the Oneness godhead belief stands unique against all pluralist godhead theories in this world.

The Olivet discourse is Jesus answering the disciple’s three part question in Matt. 24:3.

1. "Tell us, when shall these things be?
2. and what shall be the sign of thy coming
3. and of the end of the world" (the Greek word is aion, meaning age).

In part 1, "these things," meant the destruction of the temple when there would not be left "one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down," Matt. 24:1,2. Past-tribs assume that this was totally fulfilled in AD 70. Truth is, several thousand of those stones WERE NOT THROWN DOWN IN AD 70. The Romans built dirt ramparts along the walls in order to bring their battering rams closer to the walls. Thus, covering up some of the lower courses. Excavations have now exposed these stones. The stones are crying out. They speak a message of yet-unfulfilled judgment. The overthrow of Jerusalem in AD 70 was addressed in the Olivet discourse, however, it was a partial fulfillment, it did not, we repeat, it did not exhaust the Olivet discourse prophecy.

The past-trib theory does not fit the facts. Fact is, the fall of Jerusalem in 70 AD did not extinguish the antichrist. Neither did the deaths of the alleged Roman "beast," Nero, nor thousands of anti-Christian Jews killed in the siege of Jerusalem, put an end to antichrist. Rather, the spirit of antichrist has grown by leaps and bounds filling the whole globe.

Did Jesus "thoroughly purge his floor," Matt. 3:12, in AD 70? No. When the REAL coming of the Lord gets here, "it shall leave them neither root nor branch," Mal. 4:1. Judaism, far from having it’s antichrist fervor stamped out, has produced several since AD 70 whom they claimed were the Messiah (Bar Kochba, Sabbatai Zevi, Schneerson). This is the real spirit of antichrist, an impostor Messiah. Did the Jews believe that Nero, or Vespasian, or any Roman, was their Messiah? No. They are still looking for him, having rejected and killed the real one, Jesus. When the real antichrist gets here he will be the one whom the Jews will believe is their messiah. The Talmud and Kabbalah, the very epitome of antichrist blasphemy, are helping to prepare the way.

It fits the 70 AD scheme to say that Jewish anti-Christian persecution would end at the overthrow of Jerusalem. Wrong. Justin Martyr, 100-165 AD, in his "Dialogue with the Jew Trypho," said Jews were spreading lies that Christians were atheists, cannibals, and practiced incest. Jews persecuted especially Christians (Apostolics) during the antichrist Bar Kochba’s reign of terror, 130 AD, Jews instigated the martyrdom of Polycarp, Apostolic pastor of Smyrna, in the second century. By the third century Tertullian stated the general consensus when he said, "The synagogue of the Jews was the source of all persecution." Past-tribs are misleading people teaching that Nero, or Vespasian was the antichrist, that Jewish anti-Christianism was terminated, that the devil is sealed in the bottomless pit, in short, that Jesus put an end to all his enemies in AD 70. We still face the devil, and the antichrist.

Parts 2 & 3 of the three part question do not fit the facts either. "Be patient therefore, brethren, unto the coming of the Lord. Behold, the husbandman waiteth for the precious fruit of the earth, and hath long patience for it, until he receive the early and latter rain," James 5:7 The latter rains came to ripen the grain for harvest. We know when the early rains came (first century Pentecost), we also know when the latter rains came. We have experienced the latter rain outpouring of the Holy Ghost ourselves! And that’s a fact. So we know the FACTS do not fit a doctrine of latter rain fulfillment before the alleged coming of the Lord in AD 70. The latter day outpouring of the Holy Ghost positively refutes the doctrine that the coming of the Lord and the end of the age were in AD 70.

The latter rains were essential in order for the grain to survive the heat stress from the blistering hot weather at the very end of the growing season in Israel. After which followed the harvest. And when is the harvest? At the end of the age! "...The harvest is the end of this world (age); and the reapers are the angels. As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world [age]. The Son of Man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity; And shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth. THEN shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father." Verses 39-43. So the order is:

1. The early rains (first century AD)
2. The latter rains (which we have experienced)
3. Stress on the grain due to severe weather (the great tribulation)
4. The harvest (the rapture, and the end of the age)
5. The millennium (when the resurrected shine forth as the sun).

The angels did not cast "them which do iniquity" in the kingdom (the church) into a furnace of fire in AD 70. The harvest (rapture) did not happen in AD 70. Jesus did not come in AD 70. The end of the age was not AD 70. And nobody shined "forth as the sun" (resurrection/millennium) in AD 70.

"And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come," Matt. 24:14.

One of the consequences of making AD 70 the "end," is that, according to this verse, the gospel witness to "all the world" ends with it. How do the past-tribbers get around this? Larry Smith says that it (and other scripture such as Col. 1:23) refers to the gospel reaching all the known world by AD 70. But, we, having experienced the restoration of the true gospel ourselves, after over a thousand years of Catholic subversion, know this does not fit the facts. Areas of the world, unknown in Paul’s day, are receiving Apostolic truth, the natives of Alaska, for instance, are only just now hearing the true gospel for the first time.

Apostolics know past-trib theory does not fit the facts. Larry Smith ought to know better! When a theory clashes with the gospel, the gospel is preeminent, the theory is obviously wrong.

"Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world (age)," Matt. 28:20.

Did the great commission extending to the end of the age end in 70 AD? Remember, the past-tribs interpret the end of the age, even in this verse, as AD 70. Is the promise that Jesus would be "with you," as this verse states, only to AD 70? Would to God the past-tribs would ponder this verse. We believe this verse by itself defeats the Preterist spin on the gospel and the end of the age.

The past-tribs say the change from Old to New Covenant took place in 70 AD. They place a 40 year "gap" in the middle of Daniel’s 70^th week, the last 3 ½ years (66 – 70 AD), being the great tribulation. Thus, the New Covenant is not "confirmed" (see Dan. 9:27) until AD 70. Some questions need to be asked:

1. Is the gospel the Apostles preached before 70 AD different from the one after it, which they term the New Covenant?
2. Was salvation still by the law until the change in covenants in AD 70? In other words, was the transition from law to grace in AD 70?
3. Did the change of kingdoms (Mark 9:1) take place in AD 70?

We say no to all of it. Their 40 year "gap" is as speculative as the Dispensationalist 2000 year "gap." Jesus confirmed the New Covenant in his blood at the Passover with his disciples when he said: "For this is my blood of the new testament (the Greek word means covenant), which is shed for many for the remission of sins," Matt. 26:28. Thus, the change in covenants occurred at Calvary, not in 70 AD. The New Covenant was confirmed at Calvary, Pentecost, and in the gospel preached by the Apostles.

When Jesus cried on the cross "It is finished," and the veil in the temple was split from top to bottom, salvation by law was permanently ENDED – not 40 years later. (It wasn’t until Acts 10, however, until Peter became convinced.)

When Jesus said, "Verily I say unto you, That there be some of them that stand here, which shall not taste of death, till they have seen the kingdom of God come with power," Mark 9:1, that power assuredly came at Pentecost (Acts 1:8, Rom. 14:17), not 40 years later.

The past-tribs say the book of Hebrews was written before 70 AD, Smith cites from certain passages saying there were to be fulfilled at the destruction of Jerusalem. However, Hebrews is full of passages that say the change of covenants was ALREADY IN EFFECT, enacted by blood, water, and Spirit. See Heb. 8:8-13, 9:11-22, 10:4-20, 29 (note, in verse 29, "the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified," is present tense), and 12:24. The New Covenant of blood, water, and Spirit was confirmed and preached 40 years before AD 70.

The transition from law to grace did not happen, as Smith claims, in AD 70. It is folly to imagine that a mere war on the Jews is God’s means for rooting out rebellion. True, God did judge them in AD 70, but it was a partial judgment, and it did not deal with the root of their rebellion and unbelief, that is what the gospel is for, it is "the axe that is laid unto the ROOT of the trees,’" (Matt. 3:10). The gospel deals with the root of it all, the human heart.

The problems the "Hymaenenists" have are almost too numerous to name, but we will attempt a list. By "Hymaenenism" we mean the twin doctrines of Preterism and Amillennialism, or the doctrine of Hymenaeus. A blasphemy which places the first resurrection (Rev. 20:4-6) in the past (2 Tim. 2:16-18). By placing the first resurrection in the past, the coming of the Lord, and all things associated with it, are also placed in the past since the first resurrection and the coming of the Lord are the same event. By no means is this a complete list:

1. Did all the world wonder after Nero recovering from a deadly wound by the sword (Rev. 13:3)? No.
2. Did Nero, or any Roman antichrist, have a "front man", the false prophet, with two horns "like a lamb" (Rev. 13:11, 12), causing the whole world to worship himself? No.
3. Did Nero have a false prophet that produced a cosmic show, fire coming down "from heaven on the earth in the sight of men" (Rev. 13:13)? No.
4. Did Nero have a false prophet that made an image of Nero for the whole world to worship? Made to speak in order to deceive the whole world to worship Nero (Rev. 13:15)? No.
5. Did Nero have a false prophet that imposed a mark on the forehead and hand on the entire Roman empire that no one might buy or sell (Rev. 13:16)? No.
6. Did two witnesses turn waters to blood, and plague all the earth with drought during the 3 ½ years of tribulation preceding AD 70? Did Nero kill them? Did they lay dead in the streets of Jerusalem with all the world beholding it (did they have TV back then)? With all the world giving gifts to one another because of it (Rev. 11:3-10)? No, no, no.
7. Did a great number which no man could number come out of the tribulation (Rev. 7:9-17) that preceded the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70? No. Of ALL nations, and kindreds, and people, and tongues? No.
8. Was the antichrist "who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped: so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God," destroyed "by the brightness of his coming," (2 Thes, 2:4, 8) in AD 70? No.
9. If this is the millennial with the devil incarcerated in the pit, why is he called the god of this age (2 Cor. 4:4, Luke 4:5, 6)? Was he stopped from deceiving all nations in AD 70 (Rev. 20:2, 3, 7, 8)? No.
10. When Jesus returns his reward is with him, rewards of rulership over 5, or 10 cities, as per Luke 19:17, 19, did anything like this happen in AD 70? No.
11. Did the saints commence ruling with Christ, sitting on thrones with Christ, reigning as kings and priests (Rev. 20:4-6), ruling with a rod of iron (Rev. 2:25-27) in AD 70? No.
12. The resurrection takes place when Jesus comes, was there a resurrection in AD 70? No. Did a bodily change from natural to spiritual take place then (1 Cor. 15:50-55)? No. A last trump then? No.
13. The rapture takes place when Jesus comes, was there a rapture, a catching up in the clouds (the past-trib’s cloud coming), meeting the Lord in the air (1 Thess. 4:17), in AD 70? No.
14. Did the marriage of the Lamb (Rev. 19:7) take place in AD 70? No.
15. Was the mystery of God finished (Rev. 10:7) in AD 70? No.

"Verily I say unto you, this generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled." Matt. 24:34

The nail the past-tribs attempt to hang everything on is the word "generation," which they claim is the 40 year time period between 30 AD and 70 AD. According to the past-tribs, Jesus promised to return within their lifetime, or generation. According to authorities on the Greek there are many possibilities as to what this word "generation" can mean. Strong’s Concordance places "offspring" as the first possibility, with the generation of Jesus’ own day near the bottom of the list.

1. Offspring,
2. The human race,
3. The generation that sees the signs of the end,
4. The generation of Jesus’ own day,
5. The generation of the second Exodus.

The Preterists choose Strong’s fourth rendering. Their inconsistency is incredible. They spiritualize the coming of the Lord, and the cosmic calamities part of Matt. 24, to the max, but then they completely reverse themselves on "this generation" in Matt. 24:34 - they make it literal to the nth degree!

As Strong’s indicates, "offspring" is the first choice. It fits the context. It fits the facts of what is going on in our world today. Both Jesus and John the Baptist condemned repeatedly "Ye generation of vipers." Not a racial offspring, but a spiritual offspring, "a child of hell," Matt. 23:15, "children of them which killed the prophets," Matt. 23:31. The scathing rebukes of Jesus in Matt. 23 against "ye serpents, ye generation of vipers, Matt. 23:33, set the stage for Matt. 24. His usage of "this generation" in Matt. 24:34, thus, is probably in keeping with his usage of it in Matt. 23. "Offspring" fits the context of Matt. 23 & 24. Matt. 24:34 is probably focusing on that same satanic seed, the most bitter enemies of Jesus Christ, and that it would "not pass," but would persist until the TRUE end of the age. The "generation," or spiritual seed of antichrist vipers was NOT exterminated in AD 70.

Jesus said in Matt. 24:22 that "except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved . . ." At no time in AD 70 was all "flesh," or even all Jewish flesh, at risk of extinction. Certainly, the Church was in no danger of extinction at that time, yet this verse goes on to tell us that "for the elect’s sake (which in the NT always refers to the Church) those days shall be shortened."

Whatever the true meaning of "this generation," the Past-trib one cannot be it. Every line of the book of Revelation contradicts it. We have proved spiritualizing the coming of the Lord won’t work. Looking at all that has transpired since AD 70, and the condition of our world today it does not fit the facts. The larger, universal scope of the true end of the age contradicts it. Furthermore, the testimony from church history refutes it.

The earliest scholars and writers of church history were well acquainted with the Greek language, and its various shades of meaning, they lived within a hundred years or so of the Greek language spoken in Bible days, They knew more about it than our Preterist scholars, some 1900 years removed. The early writers lived not long after 70 AD. The fall of Jerusalem was in their recent memory. Yet, not a one of them interpreted "this generation" as the Preterists do. Not a one of them interpreted the book of Revelation, and the whole of prophecy fulfilled at the fall of Jerusalem.

Why didn’t they? It hadn’t been invented yet. Preterism originated in the 17th century when Luis De Alcazar, a Jesuit friar, claimed the book of Revelation only related to the events of the day in which it was written. He said there was nothing in Revelation about the future.

Our conclusion after examining the Preterist/Amillennial doctrine. It is Hymaenenist blasphemy. It, most definitely, is NOT Apostolic doctrine. Both scripture and history refute it. It is a man-made invention. Larry Smith and the past-tribs concur with the Jesuits, the Roman Catholic Church, and the (so called) Church of Christ. A much wiser choice is the oldest prophetic doctrine of church history, a belief that predates Preterism by some 1600 years, a belief held unanimous by those who lived in post-Apostolic times, a belief passed down to them from the original Apostolic church, which was the belief in the future post-tribulational coming of the Lord, a one-coming event at the very end of the church age, taking place before the millennial.

Preterism destroys our blessed hope (Titus 2:13)! By applying Second Coming texts to AD 70 It casts it’s adherents adrift without an anchor. According to Hebrews six, the "hope to the end" of v. 11, is the hope that anchors us (v. 19) until the blessed hope gets here.

The prophecies of the First Coming of Jesus Christ were not mere "poetic language," but had actual and real fulfillment; likewise, the prophecies of His Second Coming are not mere "poetic language" (as the Preterists have it) either, but will be fulfilled in like manner. [][][][]